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		daxfohl on Sept 1, 2015 \| parent \| context \| favorite \| on: The sleeping beauty paradox No, those questions are equivalent. In the single experiment case, the answer to both is 1/2, and in the infinite case, it's 1/3. There's no "3" to even enter into the equation in the single experiment case.

rjaco31 on Sept 1, 2015 [–]

Uh? The outcome probability is the same if you do it once or if you do it infinitely, it's an independent event.

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